Motion in a Central Potential

Two-Body Problem

Two particles (m1;r1,m2;r2) in 3D space with potential V(r1,r2)=V(r1r2). L=TV=m12|r˙1|2+m12|r˙1|2V(r1,r2)=m12|r˙1|2+m12|r˙1|2V(|r1r2|). Let r=r1r2 and rCM=m1r1+m2r2m1+m2. Hence, L=TV=m1+m22|r˙CM|2m1m22(m1+m2)|r˙|2V(r). Let M=m1+m2 and μ=m1m2M. So,

L=TV=M2|r˙CM|2μ2|r˙|2V(r).

This simplifies the problem to only consider this reduced mass in a potential and a free center of mass particle.

The equation of motion is then,

ddtLq˙Lq=0

C.f. dpdtF=0.

If Lq=0 then q is a cyclic variable.

Then, in our case the center of mass is a cyclic variable. So, the momentum is constant for the center of mass.

pCM=Mr˙CM and p=μr˙. Hence,

H=pCM2M+p22μ+V(|r|)=HCM+Hr.

[HCM,Hr]=0.

HCM|ψ=ECM|ψ and Hr|ψ=Er|ψ so H|ψ=E|ψ.

22[1MCM2+1μr2+V(r)E]ΨCM(r)ΨCM(rCM).

Dividing out the product of the wavefunctions,

22MCM2ψCMψCM22μr2ψrψr+V(r)=ECM+Er=E.

This gives us two separate equations,

22MCM2ψCMψCM=ECM, 22μr2ψrψr+V(r)=Er.

For the center of mass, it is a free particle - ψCM=1(2π)32expipCMrCM.

For the reduced mass system, we can transform this into a radial and angular variables to separate out the potential.

x=rsinθcosφ,y=rsinθsinφ,z=rcosθ,2=1r2r(r2r)+1r2[1sinθθ(sinθθ)+1sin2θ2φ2].

Using spherical coordinates, ψr=R(r)Y(θ,φ).

1r2ddr(r2dRdr)Y+Rr2[1sinθθ(sinθYθ+1sin2θ2Yφ2)]+2μ2[EV(r)]RY.

Dividing out by RY/r2,

ddr(r2dRdr)1R+1Y[1sinθθ(sinθYθ+1sin2θ2Yφ2)]+2μr22[EV(r)].

Then, we have,

ddr(r2dRdr)+2μr22[EV(r)]R=λR, 1sinθθ(sinθYθ)+1sin2θ2Yφ2=λY.

The second part has the Spherical Harmonic solutions from the Angular Motion.

Orbital Angular Momentum

Lx Ly Lz
ypzzpy zpxxpz xpyypx

Consider the angular momentum: L=r×p=i^(ypzzpy)j^(xpzzpx)+k^(xpyypz). Then, L^x=y^p^zz^py^.

We can then simplify the second part to L2Y=Y.

Ylm(θ,φ).

Lx=i(sinφθ+cosφtanθφ) Ly=i(cosφθ+sinφtanθφ) Lz=iφ

This gives us, L2Y=2λY. Also, LzY=mY.

{H,L2,Lz} is a C.S.C.O. and covers all of the degrees of freedom.

Commutators

  • [L2,Li]=0
  • [Li,Lj]=iLkεijk

Restrictions on Quantum Numbers

  • The Magnetic Quantum Number

    From LzY=mY we see LzY=iφY=mY so Y=fl(θ)fz(φ). Then, iddφfz(φ)=mfz(φ) gives fz(φ)=Cexp(imφ). Thus, it is periodic hence mZ.

    m is called the magnetic quantum number since applying the magnetic field splits the energies for given m states.

  • Oribtal Quantum Number

    L2=Lx2+Ly2+Lz2=Lxψ|Lx+Lyψ|Ly+Lzψ|Lz=||Lx|ψ||2+||Ly|ψ||2+||Lz|ψ||20. Thus, let λ=(+1) and so (+1)0. Thus, 0 or 1. By convention, we choose non-negative.

More Notes on Angular States

m|m=δδmm.

So, YmYmdΩ=δδmm.

dΩ=sinθdθdφ.

Ladder Operators

Let L+=Lx+iLy and L=LxiLy.

Eq 1: L2Lz2Lz=2(+1)2m22m=2(m)(±m+1)0.

Note, L+=L.

Then, m|LL±|m=m|L±L±|m=||L±|m||20. Thus, this with Eq 1 gives |m|.

L+|=0 since the ladder operator is at the limit. Similarly, L|=0.

Note: [L2,L±]=0.

Then, L2L±|m=L±L2|m=2(+1)L±|m. Thus, L±|m does not change . So, L±|=|.

Note: [Lz,L±]=[Lz,Lx]±[Lz,Ly]=±L±. Then, LzL±|m=L±Lz|m±L±|m=L±[(m±1)]|m. Thus, L±|m=c±|m±1.

||L±|m||2=2(m)(±m+1)=||c±|m±1||2=|c±|2.

L+=iexp(iφ)[iθcotθφ]

L+|=0 so L+Y=0. This gives us a differential equation to solve to find Y.

This gives us, Ycexp(iφ)sinθ. Use the lowering operators to find the other Ym.

This gives us, Ym=(1)2!exp(imφ)1sinmθdmd(cosθ)m(sinθ)2.

Note: L±|m=()(±m+1)|m±1.

Semiclassical Approach

Why do we have (+1) well our maximum m is and we note that |Lz<|L| (due to the uncertainty principle) so (+1)

Assume Lz is exactly equal to |L| then Lx=Ly=0 fully specifying the state but the commutator [Li,Lj]=iLkεijk gives a contradition.

Diatomic Molecules

Rigid Rotors

We have a fixed distance between the two particles, re=|r1r2| fixed. Moment of inertia: I=m1r12+m2r22=μre2. |L|=IωR=μre2ωR. The Hamiltonian is L22I=IωR2=L22μre2. Then, H|m=E|m=2(+1)2μre2|m=B(+1)|m

EE1 energy level difference: B(+1)B(1)=2B. B is called the rotational constant.

Transitions between levels are mediated by absorption and emission.

Heteropolar Molecules

d0=er0, permanent dipole moment, excite molecule with E (i.e. light) implies Hinteraction=d0Elight=eZElight Hinteraction=er0cosθElight.

er0ElightYmcosθYmdΩ Orthogonality: cosθYm=c1Y1m+c2Y+1m

Δ==±1, Δm=0,±1 are selection rules. Δm=0 for z-polarized and ±1 for x,y polarized.

m|Hint|m0 implies a valid transition arising from the interaction.

ν,1=EE1h=2Bh. Spacing between frequencies: ν+1,ν,1=2Bh, equally spaced.

P|m|Hint|m|2

Any deviation might be due to vibrational modes unaccounted for in rigid rotor approximation. We also may have a magnetic interaction unaccounted for that splits the lines, we then get more transition lines.

Electronic degrees of freedom ~1 eV, vibrational is 0.1 eV, and rotational is around 0.01 eV.

Homopolar Molecules

Two identical atoms rather than distinct. Use Raman-spectroscopy.

Interaction: Ωin goes in and you measure Ωsc. Ωsc=Ωin±ωR,ωR=EE.

The interaction goes as HintZ2 instead of Z, and so we get cos2. Thus, the selection rules go as Δ=±2,0.

Raman Spectrum: Rayeleigh: symmetric graph about Δ=0 with spacing around the center to be 6B/h and the rest to be 4B/h. Frequencies that are larger are called anti-Stokes lines and those that are lower are called Stokes lines.

Radial Degree of Freedom

ddr(r2dRdr)+2μr22[EV(r)]R=λR,

From our Orbital solution, we see that R=R?(r).

We can rearrange to obtain: 22μr2(2rdRdr+r2d2Rdr2)+(V(r)+(+1)22μr2)R(r)=22μr2(2rdRdr+r2d2Rdr2)+Veff(r)R(r)=ER(r) Let R(r)=u(r)r=22μd2udr2+Ueff(r)u(r)=Eu(r). This is like a 1D Schrödinger equation. Some constraints we have: r0 and u(0)=0. Let u=uk.

Hydrogen Atom

V(r)=q24πε0r=e2r Then, Veff(r)=e2r+(+1)22μr2. Bohr radius: a0=2μe2, then ρ=ra0. Also, EE/EI,EI=μe422. Let λk=Ek,/EI, to find the bound state energies. Hence, Veff(r)=e2a0ρ+e4(+1)4EIa02ρ2.

With this, we get [d2dρ2(+1)ρ+2ρλk2]uk(ρ)=0.

For ρ, we have [d2dρ2λk2]uk(ρ)=0. uk(ρ)=C1exp(ρλk)+C2exp(ρλk). Since C10 has a solution that blows up, we find that at infinity we get uk,(ρ)=Cexp(ρλk,). Then, uk(ρ)=exp(ρλk)yk(ρ).

From this, our original differential equation becomes: [d2dρ22λk,ddρ+2ρ(+1)ρ2]yk(ρ)=0. We use a power series to solve: yk(ρ)=ρsq=0cqρq, Frobenius series.

This gives us: q=0(q+s)(q+s1)cqρq+s22λkq=0(q+s)cqρq+s1+2q=0cqρq+s1(+1)q=0cqρq+s2=0. Labeling each term sequentially from 1 to 4. Note: the lowest power is s2, which is 1 and 4. Then, (s(s1)(+1))c0ρs2=0 implies that either c0=0 or s(s1)=(+1). We assume c00 so s(s1)=(+1), giving us a quadratic equation. Thus, s= or s=+1. If we have s=, then for =0 we have singularities at zero. Thus, we have that s=+1.

Let us shift the indices of 2 and 3. We get This gives us: q=0(q+s)(q+s1)cqρq+s22λkq=1(q+s1)cq1ρq+s2+2q=1cq1ρq+s2(+1)q=0cqρq+s2=0. Hence, for a power of ρ we have a coefficient [(q+s)(q+s1)(+1)]cq+cq1(22λ(q+s1)). Replacing s, we get [(q++1)(q+)(+1)]cq+cq1(22λ(q+)). Since this coefficient must be zero: [(q++1)(q+)(+1)]cq+cq1(22λ(q+))=0. Then, cq=2(λk(q+)1)q(q+2+1)cq1.

If we check convergence: cqcq12λkq. Taylor expanding $exp(2ρλkℓ) gives this ratio at the limit, which we cannot allow to happen. Thus, we need a cutoff. Let k be the cutoff such that ck=0. Then let q run from 0 to k1. So, we need λk(k+)=1. Then, λk=1k+. Note that λ was the energy so we get quantization of energy. Hence, Ek,=EIk+ with k=1,2,3.

Typically, we have the principle quantum number n=k+ then En=EIn2 with n=1,2,. Then in this case we get =nkn1,n2,,0.

Therefore, Rn,(r)=(2na0)32(n1)!2n(n)!3(2rna0)exp(rna0)Ln12+1(2rna0).

Hydrogen-Like Atoms

Ψnm(r,θ,φ)=Rn(r)Ym(θ,φ). Note, that =0 is special since you will have a non-zero probability for r0. All other ’s have a zero probability of the particle to be at r=0.

Questions

Electron is in the ground state

At what r is the probability density maximal? r=0 @ 100=nm. Well, if you see in the probability density in the integral, we get a radial integration of |Rn(r)|2r2 which gives a probability density of |Rn(r)r|2 with the Jacobian. Then, we see that the probability density is actually maximized at r1=a0 (and 0 but we know that is when the function is zero, not maximized). This gives the physical meaning to the Bohr radius.

Note, the expectation value of position is a bit larger than a0 since the expectation value is an average. r100=0|R10|2rr2dr=0|R10|2r3dr. Use a gamma function! 0xnexp(x)dx=n!=Γ(n+1). Thus, we get dr=4a03(a02)43!=a032.

Probability Density versus Wavefunction Squared

  • Example 1

    Lets say we have a detector that has one shot to detect an electron. Where should we place the detector? Place it at the center due to the spherical symmetry.

  • Example 2

    Lets say we have many detectors on a ring or sphere around it? Place it at the Bohr radii. If we can take advantage of the surface area, use the |R|2r2, but if we cannot take advantage (directional and one-shot) of it then |R|2 is better.

Energy Levels

Degeneracies increase with the principle quantum number. gn==0n1(2+1)=n(n1)+n=n2. With spin, we get gn=2n2.

Shells

Shells: n=1234=KLMN. Subshells: =01234=spdfg.

Like Atoms

Originally, we had V=e2/r.

For Deuterium, we have 1 proton, neutron, and electron. For Tritium, we have 1 proton, 2 neutrons, and 1 electron. For He+, we have 2 proton, 2 neutrons, and 1 electron. For Li2+, we have 3 proton, 2 neutrons, and 1 electron.

For more protons, we get Ze2/r.

We expect En=Z2EIn2. Recall EI=μe422, so the reduced mass also changes (also note that the Z2 came since you can idealize one of the e in the original equations as Ze and so each e gets squared and so we get a Z2 factor). Additionally, we expect that the electrons will tend to hang out closer to the nucleus for the higher charged nuclei. a0(Z)=a0HZ. a0H=2μe2.

Positron: e,e+. Equal mass, so the reduced mass is exactly half of the original mass. So, the ionization energy is roughly half of the Hydrogen atom.

Particle in Spherically Symmetric Potential

Example: Spherical Box (Quantum Dot)

Let V(r<R)=0 and V= otherwise. Let Ψ(r,θ,φ)=R?(r)Ym(θ,φ). We now just need to solve for the R(r) equation. Note, R(r)=u(r)/r gives the SE: 22md2udr2+Veff(r)u(r)=Eu(r) with Veff=V(r)+2(+1)2μr2. So, Veff(r<R)=2(+1)2μr2 and Veff(r>R)=. The outer limit means the wave function must be zero at the boundary. Hence, d2udr2+[2μE2(+1)r2](r)u(r)=0.

Ansatz: Rn(r)=Ajn(r).

By letting u(r)=zη(z) we get d2ηdz2+1zdηdz+(1(+1/2)2z2)η(z)=0. η(z)=C1J+1/2(z)+C2J(+1/2)(z).

j(z)=π2J+1/2(z)z, n(z)=π2(1)+1J(+1/2)(z)z.

As z0, j behave like a power law (z(2+1)!!) and n(z) behaves inversely (21)!!z+1.

j(z)1zcos[z(π(+1))/2] n(z)1zsin[z(π(+1))/2] (Are these flipped?)

j0(0)=C but all other give j(0)=0. n(0).

Thus, u(r)=kr(C1j(kr)+C2n(kr)).

So, for our problem, u(r)=krC1j(kr) from r0 implies u(r)0. Then, we find for r=R, j(kR)=0. So, we get un(r)=krCj(knr) such that j(knR)=0.

Note: j0(z)=sinzz, j1(z)=sinzz2coszz and j2(z)=(3z31z)sin(z)3zcosz. So, Rn(r)=Cj(knr).

Note: E=2kn22μ.

Author: Christian Cunningham

Created: 2024-05-30 Thu 21:19

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